MAHE MOCK TEST 1

a) It is a strict human pathogen
b) It can be cultured from the patient during catarrhal stage
c) It leads to invasion of the respiratory mucosa
d) Infection can be prevented by an a cellular vaccine

2) The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is:

a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) IgM

3) The following are true regarding Lyme's disease, except:

a) It is transmitted by ixodes tick
b) Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature
c) Borrelia recurrentis is the etiological agent
d) Rodents act as natural hosts

4) A 2 month old baby with acute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hrs. The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother's hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be:

a) HbsAg positive only
b) HbsAg and HbeAg positive
c) HbsAg and HbeAb positive
d) HBV DNA

5) Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured from a single source at a picnic party. Twenty children developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhea 6 - 10 hrs after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is:

a) Rotavirus infection
b) Entero-toxigenic E. coli infection
c) Staphylococcal toxin
d) Clostridium perfringens infection

6) A laborer is involved with repair work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:

a) Weil-Felix test
b) Paul Bunnel test
c) Microscopic agglutination test
d) Micro immunofluorescence test

7) A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the OPD. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by:

a) 70% alcohol for 5 min
b) 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 mins
c) 2% formaldehyde for 10 mins
d) 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 mins

8) Which of the following statements is true about rabies virus:

a) It is a double stranded RNA virus
b) Contains a DNA-dependant RNA polymerase
c) RNA has a negative polarity
d) Affects motor neurons

9) Which of the following statements is true about endemic typhus:

a) Is caused by R.rickettsii
b) Is transmitted by the bite of fleas
c) Has no mammalian reservoir
d) Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium

10) Heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures can be best sterilized by:

a) Absolute alcohol
b) UV rays
c) Chlorine releasing compounds
d) Ethylene oxide gas

11) Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing luteinizing hormone surge is associated with one of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation:

a) High estrogen : low progesterone
b) Low estrogen : High progesterone
c) Low estrogen : Low progesterone
d) High estrogen : High progesterone

12) A 55 yr old woman has recurrent urinary retention after a hysterectomy done for a huge fibroid. The most likely cause is:

a) Atrophic and stenotic urethra
b) Lumbar disc prolapse
c) Injury to bladder neck
d)Injury to hypogastric plexi

13) Laparotomy performed in a case of ovarian tumor revealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascites positive for malignant cells and positive pelvic lymph nodes. All the other structures were free of disease. What is the stage of disease:

a) stage IIc
b) stage IIIa
c) stage IIIb
d) stage IIIc

14) B Lynch suture is applied on:

a) Cervix
b) Uterus
c) Fallopian tubes
d) Ovaries

15) Pure gonadal dysgenesis will be diagnosed in the presence of:

a) Bilateral streak gonads
b) Bilateral dysgenetic gonads
c) One side streak and other dysgenetic gonads
d) One side streak and other normal looking gonads

16) Cut-off value of cervical length at 24 weeks of gestation for prediction of preterm delivery is:

a) 0.5 cm
b) 1.5 cms
c) 2.5 cms
d) 3.5 cms

17) All of the following may be observed in a normal pregnancy except:

a) Fall in serum iron concentration falls
b) Increase in serum iron binding capacity
c) Increase in blood viscosity increases
d) Increase in blood oxygen carrying capacity

18) Pyometra is a complication associated with all the following conditions except:

a) Carcinoma of the vulva
b) Carcinoma of the cervix
c) Carcinoma of the endometrium
d) Pelvic radiotherapy

19) A 20 yr old woman gives a history of sharp pain in the lower abdomen for 2 - 3 days every month approximately 2 weeks before the menses. The most probable etiology for her pain is:

a) Endometriosis
b) Dysmenorrhoea
c) Pelvic tuberculosis
d) Mittelschmerz

20) All of the following drugs are used in the management of post partum hemorrhage

a) Misoprostol
b) Oxytocin
c) Prostaglandin
d) Mifepristone (RU-486)

21) All of the following are mechanisms of action of emergency contraception except:

a) Delaying ovulation
b) Inhibiting fertilization
c) Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg
d) Interrupting an early pregnancy

22) Most common cause of first trimester abortion is:

a) Chromosomal abnormalities
b) Syphilis
c) Rhesus isoimmunization
d) Cervical incompetence

23) A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding PV and loss of fetal movements. On examination, the uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. The most likely diagnosis is:

a) Placenta praevia
b) Hydramnios
c) Premature labor
d) Abrutio placenta

24) In the prenatal diagnostic technique Act 1994, which one of the following is not a groud for carrying out prenatal test?

a) Pregnant women above 35 yrs age
b) History of 2 or more spontaneous abortions or fetal loss
c) When fetal heart rate is 160 per min at fifth and 120 per min at ninth month
d) History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs

25) A 55 yr old lady presenting to OPD with post menopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 X 1 cms nodule on the anterior lip of the cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is:

a) Pap smear
b) Punch Biopsy
c) Endocervical curettage
d) Colposcopy

26) A hemodynamically stale nullliparous patient with ectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 X 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/ml. What modality treatment is suitable for her:

a) Conservative management
b) Medical management
c) Laparoscopic surgery
d) Laparotomy

27) A primigravida at 37th week of gestation reported to labor room with central placenta praevia with heavy bleeding per vaginum. The fetal heart rate was normal at the time of examination. The best management option for her is:

a) Expectant treatment
b) Caesarian Section
c) Induction and vaginal delivery
d) Induction and forceps delivery

28) A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if the disease develops after:

a) Hydatidiform mole
b) Full term pregnancy
c) Spontaneous abortion
d) Ectopic pregnancy

29) All of the following are the known risk factors for development of endometrial carcinoma, except:

a) Obesity
b) Family history
c) Use of Hormone Replacement Therapy
d) Early menopause

30) A 45 yr old female is having bilateral ovarian mass, ascites and omental caking on CT Scan. There is high possibility that the patient is having:

a) Benign Ovarian Tumor
b) Malignant Epithelial Ovarian tumor
c) Dysgerminoma of ovary
d) Lymphoma of ovary

31) Vortex vein invasion is commonly seen in:

a) Retinoblastoma
b) Malignant melanoma.
c) Optic nerve glioma
d) Medullo-epitheliomas

32) A child has got a congenital cataract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated:

a) Immediately
b) At 2 months of age
c) At 1 yr of age when the globe becomes normal sized
d) After 4 yrs of age when the entire ocular and orbital growth become normal

33) A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All of the following things are suitable for performing LASIK except:

a) Myopia of -4D
b) Age of 15 years
c) Stable refraction for 1 yr
d) Corneal thickness of 600 microns

34) Fasanella Servat operation is specifically indicated in:

a) Congential ptosis
b) Steroid induced ptosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Horner's syndrome

35) The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors is indicated in:

a) Senile ectropion
b) Senile entropion
c) Cicatricial entropion
d) Paralytic entropion

36) In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically caused by:

a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Toxoplasma gondii
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Histoplasma capsulatum

37) Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:

a) Iridocyclitis
b) Polyarteritis nodosa
c) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
d) Giant cell arteritis

38) A 1 yr old child having leucocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:

a) Enucleation
b) Chemotherapy with local dyes
c) Direct Laser Ablation using photodynamic cryotherapy
d) Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy

39) Hereditary retinoblastomas develop the following chromosomal deletion:

a) 13q14
b) 13p14
c) 14p13
d) 14q13

40) A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment:

a) Propamidine
b) Neosporine
c) Ketoconazole
d) Polyhexamethylene biguanide

41) A patient is on follow up with you after enucleation of a painful blind eye. After enucleation of the eyeball, a proper sized artificial prosthetic eye is advised after a postoperative period of:

a) about 10 days
b) About 20 days
c) 6 - 8 wks
d) 12 - 24 wks

42) A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occuring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with raised polygonal areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:

a) Trachoma
b) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
c) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
d) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

43) A 20 yr old man complains of difficulty in reading the news paper with his right eye, 3 wks after sustaining a gunshot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is -

a) Macular edema
b) Sympathetic ophthalmia
c) Optic nerve avulsion
d) Delayed Vitreous hemorrhage

44) A vitreous aspirate has been collected in an emergency at 9 pm. What advice you like to give to the staff on duty regarding the overnight storage of the sample:

a) The sample should be kept at 4 Degrees C
b) The sample should be incubated at 37 Degrees C
c) The sample should be refrigerated in deep freezer.
d) The sample should be refrigerated for the initial 3 hours and then incubated at 37 Degrees C

45) Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in an child does not occur in :

a) Rickets
b) Lead poisoning
c) Metaphyseal dysplasia
d) Hypophosphatasia

46) A classical expansive lytic lesion in the transverse process of a vertebra is seen in:

a) Osteosarcoma
b) Aneurysmal bone cyst
c) Osteoblastoma
d) Metastasis

47) Osteomalacia is associated with:

a) Decrease in osteoid volume
b) Decrease in osteoid surface
c) Increase in osteoid maturation time
d) Increase in mineral apposition rate

48) Which one of the following test will you adopt while examining a knee joint where you suspect an old tear of anterior cruciate ligament?

a) Posterior drawer test
b) Mc Murray test
c) Lachman test
d) Pivot shift test

49) A 60 yr old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen right ankle joint. Radiographs of the ankle show destroyed joint with large number of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is:

a) Charcot's joint
b) Clutton's joint
c) Osteoarthritis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis

50) In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usually erodes:

a) Intervertebral disc
b) Into the pleural cavity
c) Into the retroperitoneal space
d) Towards the skin

Quiz script provided by
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