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MAHE MOCK TEST-4

 

 

1) At the end of anesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent?

a) Diffusion hypoxia
b) Second gas effect
c) Hyperoxia
d) Bronchospasm

2) Which of the following inhalational agent is contraindicated in a patient with history of epilepsy?
a) Isoflurane
b) Enflurane
c) Halothane
d) Sevoflurane

3) All of the following are suitable anesthetic circuits for both controlled and assisted ventilation, except?
a) Mapleson A
b) Mapleson B & C
c) Mapleson D
d) Mapleson E

4) Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) is used for?
a) Maintenance of the airway
b) Facilitating laryngeal surgery
c) Prevention of aspiration
d) Removing oral secretions

5) All of the following are known risk factors for the development of ovarian carcinoma, except?
a) Family history of Ovarian carcinoma
b) Use of oral pills
c) Use of Clomiphene
d) BRCA-1 positive individual

6) The commonest cause of primary amenorrhea is?
a) Genital Tuberculosis
b) Ovarian Dysgenesis
c) Mullerian duct anomalies
d) Hypothyroidism

7) Which of the following drug is not used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy?
a) Potassium Chloride
b) Methotrexate
c) Actinomycin D
d) Misoprostol

8) With reference to fetal heart rate. a non stress test is considered reactive when?
a) Two fetal heart rate accleration are noted in 20 mins
b) One fetal heart rate acceleration is noted in 20 mins
c) Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 10 mins
d) Three fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 30 mins

9) Which of the following is correct for the calculation of pearl index?
a) (No. of accidental pregnancies X 1200) / (No. of patients observed X months of use)
b) (No. of accidental pregnancies X 1200) / (No. of patients observed X 2400)
c) (No. of patients observed X months of use) / (No. of accidental pregnancies )
d) (No. of patients observed X 2400) / (No. of accidental pregnancies X 2400 )

10) Which of the following is not associated with chorioamnionitis?
a) Preterm labou
b) Endometritis
c) Abruptio placentae
d) Placenta accreta

11) In complete bilateral palsy of recurrent laryngeal nerves, there is ?
a) Complete loss of speech with strider and dyspnoea
b) Complete loss of speech but no difficulty in breathing
c) Preservation of speech with severe strider and dyspnoea
d) Preservation of speech and no difficulty in breathing

12) Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for rehabilitation of a patient who has bilateral profound deafness following surgery for bilateral acoustic schwannoma?
a) Bilateral high powered digital hearing AID
b) Bilateral cochlear implants
c) Unilateral cochlear implant
d)Brain stem implant

13) Iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused during?
a) Myringoplasty
b) Stapedectomy
c) Mastoidectomy
d) Ossiculoplasty

14) "Gold standard" surgical procedure for prevention of aspiration is?
a) Thyroplasty
b) Tracheostomy
c) Tracheal division and permanent tracheotome
d) Feeding gastrostomy / jejunostomy

15) Which of the following is not the site for paraganglioma?
a) Carotid bifurcation
b) Jugular foramen
c) Promontary in middle ear
d) Geniculate ganglion

16) Which of the following statements is not true for contact ulcer?
a) The commonest site is the junction of anterior 1/3rd and middle 1/3rd of vocal cord and gastro esophageal reflux is the causative factor
b) Can be caused by intubation injury
c) The vocal process is the site and is caused / aggravated by acid reflux
d) Can be caused by adductor dysphonia


17) Of the following food items, which one has the highest "Glycemic index" ?
a) Corn flakes
b) Brown rice
c) Ice-cream
d) Whole wheat bread

18) An investigator wants to study the association between maternal intake of iron supplements (Yes or No) and incidence of low birth weight (<2500 or >= 2500 gms). He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women as to the status of usage of iron supplements and the status of low birth weight in their newborns. The appropriate statistical test of hypothesis advised in this situation is?/div>
a) Paired t-test
b) Unpaired or independent t-test
c) Analysis of variance
d) Chi-Square test

19) After applying a statically test, an investigator gets the 'p value' as 0.01. It means that?
a) The probability of finding a significant difference is 1%
b) The probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference, is 1%
c) The difference is not significant 1% times and significant 99% times
d) The power of the test used is 99%

20) If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies?
a) Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable
b) Disease is non-fatal
c) Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong
d) Nothing can be said, as they are independent

21) The rate adjusted to allow for the age distribution of the population is?
a) Perinatal mortality rate
b) Crude mortality rate
c) Fertility rate
d) Age-standardized mortality rate

22) The following is true about prevalence and incidence?
a)  Both are rates
b) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not.
c) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
d) Both are not rates

23) The national level system that provides annual national as well as state level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality is called?
a) Civil Registration System
b) Census
c) Ad hoc Survey
d) Sample Registration System

24) Mean and standard deviation can be worked out only if data is on?
a) Interval/Ratio Scale
b) Dichotomous scale
c) Nominal scale
d) Ordinal scale

25) The fasting blood levels of glucose for a group of diabetics is found to be normally distributed with a mean of 105 mg per 100 ml of blood and a standard deviation of 10 mg per 100 ml of blood. From this data, it can be inferred that approximately 95% of the diabetics will have their fasting blood glucose levels within the limits of?
a) 75 and 135 mgs
b) 85 and 125 mgs
c) 95 and 115 mgs
d) 65 and 145 mgs

26) Mites are the vectors of the following diseases except?
a) Scabies
b) Scrub typhus
c) Rickettsial pox
d) KFD

27) The age and sex structure of a population may be best described by a?
a) Life table
b) Correlation coefficient
c) Population pyramid
d) Bar chart

28) Additional daily energy requirement during the first six month for a lactating women is?
a) 350 Kcalories
b) 450 Kcalories
c) 550 Kcalories
d) 650 Kcalories

29) The most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in community is?
a) Spleen rate
b) Infant parasite rate
c) Annual parasite incidence
d) Slide positive rate

30) In defining General Fertility Rate, the denominator is?
a) Population between 15 and 49 years of age
b) Women between15 and 49 years age
c) Mid year population
d) Live births

31) Taking the definition of blindness as visual acuity less than 3/60 in the better eye, the number of blind persons per 1,00,000 population in India is estimated to be?
a) 500
b) 700
c) 1000
d) 1500

32) Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness in India,  Medical Colleges are classified as eye care centers of?
a) Primary level
b) Secondary level
c) Tertiary level
d) Intermediate level

33) A resident doctor sustained a needlestick injury while sampling blood of a patient who is HIV positive. A decision is taken to offer him post-exposure prophylaxis. Which one of the following would be the best recommendation?
a) Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks
b) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks
c) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks
d) Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks

34) In a double-blind clinical drug trial?
a) Each patient receives a placebo
b) Each patient receives both (double) treatments
c) The patients do not know which treatment they are receiving
d) The patients do not know that they are in a drug trial

35) Enzyme replacement therapy is available for the treatment of the following disorder?
a) Gaucher disease
b) Niemann-Pick disease
c) Hunter syndrome
d) Phenylketonuria

36) The conjugation of bilirubin to glucuronic acid in the liver?
a) Converts a hydrophilic compound to a hydrophobic one
b) Converts a hydrophobic compound to a hydrophilic one
c) Enables the bilirubin molecule to cross the cell membrane
d) Is increased during neonatal jaundice

37) A buffer is most effective at a pH of about 4.5 is?
a) Acetate buffer
b) Bicarbonate buffer
c) Phosphate buffer
d) Tris buffer

38) The 3 dimensional shape of a protein is maintained by?
a) Strong covalent interactions
b) Interactions with other proteins
c) Multiple weak interactions
d) Interactions with prosthetic groups

39) Mitochondria is involved in all of the following, except?
a) ATP production
b) Apoptosis
c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
d) Fatty acid biosynthesis

40) NADPH is produced by?
a) Glycolysis
b) Citric acid cycle
c) HMP shunt
d) Glycogenesis

41) All of the following are pneumatic bones, except?
a) Maxilla
b) Parietal
c) Ethmoid
d) Mastoid

42) The stability of the ankle joint is maintained by all the following, except?
a) Planter calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament
b) Deltoid ligament
c) Lateral ligament
d) Shape of the superior talar articular surface

43) During repair of indirect inguinal hernia, while releasing the constriction at the deep inguinal ring, the surgeon takes care not to damage one of the following structures?
a) Falx inguinalis (conjoined tendon)
b) Interfoveolar ligament
c) Inferior epigastric artery
d) Spermatic cord

44) An elderly woman was admitted with a fracture of the neck of right femur which failed to unite. On examination an avascular necrosis of the head of femur was noted. The condition would have resulted most probably from the damage to?
a) Superior gluteal artery
b) Inferior gluteal artery
c) Acetabular branch of obturator
d) Retinacular branches of circumflex femoral arteries

45) A hypertensive individual had a sudden headache and became unconscious within a few minutes. On regaining consciousness, there was complete flaccid hemiplegia with no involvement of upper face, absence of tendon reflexes and a positive Babinski sign. Which one of the following arteries could have ruptured?
a) Lateral striate branch of middle cerebral
b) Medial striate branch of anterior cerebral
c) Posterolateral branch from posterior cerebral
d) Posterior choroidal branch of posterior cerebral

46) The kinetic energy of the body is least in one of the following phases of walking cycle?
a) Heel strike
b) Mid-stance
c) Double support
d) Toe-off

47) Unequal division of the conus cordis resulting from anterior displacement of the conotrucal septum gives rise to?
a) Persistent truncus arteriosus
b) Coarctation of aorta
c) Tetralogy of Fallot
d) Transposition of great vessels

48) When a heavy object in hand is lowered, the extension at the elbow is brought about by?
a) Active shortening of the extensors
b) Passive shortening of the extensors
c) Active lengthening of the flexors
d) Active shortening of the flexors

49) The pronator quadratus has the same innervation as of the following muscle?
a) Flexor digitorum superficialis
b) Palmaris longus
c) Flexor pollicis longus
d) Flexor digitorum profundus of middle finger

50) Fossa of Rossenmuller" is situated in:
a) Base of the skull
b) Behind the Eustracian tube
c) In the posterior pharyngeal wall
d) Behind the parotid duct

 


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