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  MAHE 2002 Solved medical PG entrance exam papers

Index

   Anatomy    Physiology  Biochemistry Pharmacology   Pathology
 Microbiology     Forensic     P&SM        ENT Ophthalmology
  Medicine     Surgery      OBG    Pediatrics   Orthopedics
  Radiology  Dermatology   Anesthesia    Psychiatry  Back to top

These Questions are memory based , hence some of them have been modified

Anatomy

1]     Posterior boundary of foramen of Winslow is formed by:

  1.  Aorta

  2. Inferior vena cava

  3. Portal vein

  4. Liver 

Ans : B

2] Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by:

  1. Ligament of Treitz

  2.  Superior mesenteric artery

  3.  Falciform ligament

  4. Tail of pancreas

Ans : A

3] External ear is developed from:

  1. 1st brachial arch

  2.  2nd brachial cleft

  3.  1st brachial cleft

  4.  2nd brachial arch.

Ans : A

4] Joint at Knee is:

  1.  Synarthrosis

  2.  Symphysis

  3. Amphiarthrosis

  4. Diarthrosis

Ans : C

5] Depression of mandible is brought about by:

  1. Medial pterygoid

  2. Lateral pterygoid

  3.  Masseter

  4.  Buccinator

Ans : B

6] The transfer of body weight  in vertebral column is through:-

  1.  Laminae

  2. Pedicle

  3. Vertebral body

  4.  Neural arch 

Ans : C

7]  Spinal nerves are mixed because they contain:

  1. Sensory and motor

  2. Dorsal & ventral roots

  3. Come through inter vertebral foramen

  4. Constitute both craniosacral and the thoracolumbar out flow.

Ans : A

8] Ossification centre of which bone appears with premolar tooth:

  1.  Pisiform

  2. Olecranon process

  3. Lateral condyle of humerus

  4. Radial tuberosity

Ans : B

9] Lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by:

  1. Femoral artery

  2. Femoral vein

  3. Sartorius

  4. Lacunar ligament

Ans : C

10 ] Fecal fistula at umbilicus is due to persistence of:

  1.  Vitellointestinal duct

  2. Patent urachus

  3. Remnant of urachus

  4. Ligamentum arteriosum

Ans : A

11] Main supply of small gut is by:

  1. Superior mesenteric Artery

  2. Inferior mesenteric artery

  3. Middle colic artery

  4.  Celiac Axis

Ans : A

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Physiology & Biochemistry

1] Absorption of H2O in PCT is characteristic by all except:

  1.  Vasopressin dependent

  2.  60% of water is absorbed

  3.  Depends on solutes

  4. Vasopressin independent

Ans : A

2] Cerebellar Ataxia is characterized by all except:

  1. Resting tremor

  2. Dysdiadochokinesis

  3. Ataxia

  4. Hypotonia

Ans : A

3] Parasympathetic stimulation of tissues in walls of bronchioles causes:

  1.  Bronchoconstriction

  2. Bronchodilation

  3.  Increased blood flow

  4. Dilatation of alveoli.

Ans: A

4] Absorption of vitamin D in intestine is helped by:

  1.  Calcium

  2. Potassium

  3. Magnesin

  4. Iron

Ans: A

5] Function of cochlea is:

  1. Auditory function

  2. Nerve deafness

  3. Basilar membrane is tuned

  4.  Equilibruin is disturbed 

Ans : A

6] Avoiding response is due to:

  1.  Ispilateral frontal lobe lesions

  2.  Contra lateral frontal lobe lesions

  3.  Ipsilateral parietal lobe lesions

  4. Contralateral parietal lobe lesions

Ans : B

7] Posterior pituitary hormones are:

  1. ADH and Oxytocin

  2. TRH and FSH

  3. Vasopressin and CRH

  4.  Oxyticin and ACTH

Ans : A

8] Action potential is:

  1. Decremented phenomenon

  2. Doesn’t obey all or none phenomenon

  3. K+ goes from ECF to ICF

  4. Threshold stimulus is required

Ans : D

9] Anabolic hormones are all except:

  1. Cortisol

  2. Testosterone

  3. Growth Hormone

  4. Insulin

Ans : A

10] Competitive inhibition is characterized by:

  1.  Increased Km and V Max is same

  2.  increased Vmax and Km remains constant

  3.  increased Km and increased Vmax

  4. Decreased Km and increased Vmax

Ans : A

11] Macrophages in the walls of arteries have receptors for:

  1. Oxidized IDL

  2. Oxidized LDL

  3.  LDL

  4. IDL

Ans: B

12] Collagen synthesis, hydroxyproline is converted to:

  1. Prolene

  2. Lysine

  3. Hydroxy lysine

  4. None of the above

Ans: A

13] Ammonium ion is released by:

  1. Arginase

  2. Glutamate dehydrogenises

  3. Glutaminase

  4. All of the above

Ans: B

14] Salivary secretion does all except:

  1.  Lubrication

  2.  Taste sensation 

  3. Digestion of carbohydrates

  4. Digestion of proteins

Ans : D

15] Inability to understand, speak or read is:

  1. Dyslexia

  2. Aphasia

  3. Disconnection syndrome

  4.  Ataxia

Ans : A

16] Frequency of Alpha waves is:

  1. 4-6

  2. > 13

  3. 8-13

  4.  2-4

Ans: C

17] Normal testicular development requires:

  1. XY

  2. XX 

  3.  Y chromosome

  4. X chromosome 

Ans : A

18] PR interval is:

  1.  0.12- 0.16 seconds

  2. 0.3 - 0.4 sec.

  3. 0.6 - 0.8 sec.

  4. 0.12 -4 sec.

Ans : A

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Pharmacology

1]  Friedrich type V hyperlipidemia is due to excess of:

  1. HDL
  2. LDL
  3. IDL
  4. Chylomicrons

Ans : D

2] Benzathine penicillin is given in:

  1. primary syphilis
  2. Acute gonorrhea
  3. Bacterial endocarditis
  4. meningococcal infection

Ans: A

3] Epinephrine is not used is:

  1. Chronic bronchial asthma
  2. Local homeostasis
  3. Anaphylaxis
  4. All of the above

Ans : A

4] Aspirin should not be used in:

  1. Dysmenorrhea
  2. Viral infection
  3. Ischemic heart disease
  4. Inflammation

Ans : B

5] Mechanism of action of Amiodarone is:

  1. Prolongs APD
  2. Blocks inactivated Na+ channel
  3.  Inhibits myocardial Ca++ channel
  4. All of the above

Ans : D

6] Famotidine and cimetidine are different in their action in:

  1. Oral absorption
  2. Duration of action
  3. Mechanism of action
  4.  Anti androgenic action

Ans : B

7] About succinyl choline all are true except:

  1.  Neostigmine reversal
  2. Persistent depolarization
  3. Short acting
  4. metabolized by pseudo cholinesterase

Ans : B

8] Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is treated by:

  1. Thiazides
  2. Carbamazepine
  3. Vasopressin
  4. Cyclophosphamide

Ans : A

9] Prolactin inhibition is caused by:

  1. Dopamine
  2. Bromocriptine antagonist
  3. CRH
  4. Acetylcholine

Ans : A

10] Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers have common indications in all except:

  1. variant angina
  2. Migraine
  3. Hypertension
  4. None of the above

Ans : A

11] Mebendazole is not given in:

  1. Intestinal amoebiasis
  2. Ascariasis
  3. Ancylostoma duodenale
  4. Trichurea trichuris

Ans: A

12] Most common side effect of zidovudine is:

  1. Hemolytic Anemia
  2. Myopathy
  3. Bone marrow depression
  4. Hepatotoxicity

Ans: C

13] Chlamydial infection in treated by:

  1.  tetracycline
  2. chloramphenicol
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. Penicillin

Ans : A

14] Mechanism of action of INH include all except:

  1. Kills intracellular bacilli
  2. Kills dormant bacilli
  3. Most dangerous complication is peripheral neuritis
  4. It penetrates all body tissues 

Ans: B

15] Clavulanic acid acts by:

  1. B-lactamase inhibitor
  2. Non progressive inhibitor
  3. Extended spectrum penicillin
  4. None of the above 

Ans : A

16] Which is not true about meperidine:

  1. Drug dependence
  2. Houring short half life than morphine
  3. More spasmogenic than morphine
  4. Action is antagonize by Naloxone

Ans : C

17] Mechanism of action of biphosphonates is:

  1. Increased urinary excretion of calcium
  2. Osteoclastmediated re absorption inhibition
  3. Decreased absorption of calcium from gut.
  4. Increased absorption of calcium from gut

Ans :B

18] B1 action of epinephrine is seen in all except:

  1. Angina pectoris
  2. Ventricular arrhythmias
  3. Slow arrhythmias
  4.  Intestinal relaxation

Ans : D

19] Atropine is used for all except:

  1. Corneal ulcer
  2. Children with myopia
  3. Iridocyclitis
  4. narrow angle glaucoma

Ans : D

20] Plasma half life of drugs:

  1.  Maximum effective dose of drug
  2. max. lethal effect
  3. potency of drug
  4. Dose frequency interval

Ans : D

21] Photosensitivity is caused by:

  1. Digoxin
  2. Amiodarone
  3. Phenytoin
  4. Carbamazepine

Ans : B

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Pathology

1] In AML Chromosomal anomaly is:

  1. 9 & 22

  2. 21 & 9

  3.  20 & 10

  4.  8 & 14

Ans : D

2] Highly selective proteinuria contains:

  1. fibrinogen and albumin

  2. transferin

  3. transferrin and fibrinogen

  4. fibrinogen

Ans : A

3] Edward syndrome is due to:

  1.  Chromosome 18 anomaly

  2.  Chromosome 13 anomaly

  3.  Chromosome 11 anomaly

  4.  Chromosome & anomaly

Ans : A

4] Turner’s syndrome is:

  1. XO

  2. XXY

  3. XXX

  4. XXO

Ans : A

5] Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all except:

  1. Crypt abscess

  2. Sub mucosal inflammation

  3. Pseudo polyps seen

  4. Fistula formation

Ans : D

6] M4 stage of AML is called as:

  1. Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia

  2. Acute monoblastic leukemia

  3. Myelomonocytic leukemia

  4. Monocytic leukemia

Ans : A

7] About neutrophils all are incorrect except:-

  1. 10-20% of all leucocytes.

  2. Phagocytosis

  3. Antibody formation

  4. Increase in chronic infections

Ans : B

8] In leprosy nerve involved is:

  1. Ulnar Nerve

  2. Median

  3. Radial

  4. Axillary

Ans : A

9]  Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to:

  1.  oat cell carcinoma

  2. squamous cell carinoma

  3. Adenocarcinoma

  4.  adenosqumous

Ans : C

10] DIC is caused by all except:

  1. IUD

  2. septic abortion

  3. extramniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate

  4.  Ammiotic fluid embolism

Ans : C

11] Giant  cell tumour source of cells is :

  1. Osteoclast

  2. Osteoblasts

  3. Osteoid

  4. Unknown

Ans : D

12] Cells in M4 AML are:

  1.  Monoblasts & myeloblasts

  2.  Myeloblasts only

  3. Monocytes & myelocytes

  4. erythroid cells

Ans : A

13] Most common tumor of appendix is:

  1. Carcinoid

  2. Squamous cell

  3. Adenocarcinoma

  4. Argentaffin type

Ans : A

14] Stricture of gut is caused by:

  1. Typhoid

  2. tuberculosis

  3. Crohn’s disease

  4. Ulcerative colitis

Ans : B

15] Lipooxygenase mediated chemotaxis is by:

  1.  B4

  2. C4

  3. D4

  4. E4

Ans : A

16] Exchange of genetic material takes place in:

  1. Prophase –I

  2.  Prophase II

  3.  Metaphase

  4.  Telophase

Ans : C

17] Thromboxane A2 causes:

  1. Vasodilatation

  2. Platelet inhibition

  3. None of the above

  4. Both of above

Ans : C

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Microbiology

1] Appendicitis like syndrome is caused by:

  1.  Brucella abortis
  2.  Yersinia tuberculosis
  3.  Pasturella multocida
  4. Yersenia pestis 

Ans : C

2] Hep B infection, window period is characterized by:

  1.  Anti HBS antibody
  2.  HBS antigen
  3. Anti HBE
  4.  HBE

Ans : A

3] Visceral larva migrans is caused by:

  1.  Toxocara canis
  2.  Toxoplasma
  3.  Toxocora cutis
  4.  Ascariasis

Ans : A

4]  In immuno-compromised person, fungal viral, protozoal infection are due to deficiency of:

  1.  T lymphocytes
  2.  B lymphocytes
  3.  Macrophages
  4.  Neutrophils

Ans : A

5] Fungi affecting retroculo-endothelial cells are:

  1.  Cryptcoccus
  2.  Histoplasmosis
  3.  Sporothrix
  4.  Cryptosporidium

Ans : B

6]  Antigenic drift in influenza virus infections is due to:

  1.  Small mutation in neuraminidase and hem agglutinin.
  2.  Large mutations in hem agglutinin only
  3.  Step mutations in viral genome
  4.  None of the above

Ans : A

7] Long lasting immunity in hepatitis infection is due to:

  1.  IgA
  2.  IgG
  3.  IgM
  4.  IgE

Ans : A

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Forensic

1] Basophilic stippling is seen in:

  1.  RBC
  2.  WBC
  3.  Neutrophils
  4.  Basophiles 

Ans : A

2] Sentence of death is passed in which judicial court:

  1.  High court
  2.  Supreme court
  3.  session court
  4.  Assistant session court 

Ans : A

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P&SM

1] Savlon contains:

  1.  Chlorhexidine and chlorxylenol
  2.  Cetavlon and chlorhexidine
  3.  Cetavlon and habitane
  4.  Hibitane and chlorxylenol

Ans : B

2] Sullivan index indications:

  1.  Life free of disability
  2.  Hook worm eggs/gm of stool
  3.  standard of living
  4.  Pregnancy rate per HWY

Ans : A

3] Global eradication of small pox was done on:

  1.  26th Oct 1977
  2.  8th May 1980
  3.  17th March 1980
  4.  17th April 1977

Ans : B

4] Limiting Amino acids in wheat are:

  1. Methionine and Lysine
  2.  Lysine and threonine
  3.  Threonine and methionine
  4.  Arginine and lysine

Ans : B

5] Path of longest duration is:

  1.  Limiting path
  2.  critical path
  3.  cumulative path
  4.  None of the above

Ans : B

6] Level of proteins in human milk is:

  1.  0.8ng/dl
  2.  0.9ng/dl
  3.  1ng/dl
  4.  2ng/dl

Ans : B

7] Fluoride content in drinking H2O normally safe is:

  1.  0.5-0.8 mg/dl
  2.  0.8-0.1 ng/dl
  3.  0.2-0.8ng/dl
  4.  0.2-0.5mg/dl

Ans : A

8] Point of control in tuberculosis: 

  1.  Prevalence is < 1 in 0-14 group of children
  2.  > 1% is all children’s
  3. <1% in 0-5yrs of age group
  4. <2% in 0-14 group.

Ans: A

9] PQLI index includes all except:

  1.  Life expectancy at 1 yr of age
  2.  Per capita income
  3.  Literacy
  4.  IMR

Ans : B

10] Positive size of respire able dust is:

  1.  1-5microgm
  2.  5-10microgm
  3.  15microgm
  4.  20microgm

Ans : A

11] Sensitivity is:

  1. True positives + false positives /True positives
  2. True positives / T.P + F.P
  3. True positive / T.P + false negatives
  4. True negatives / true positive + false negatives

Ans : B

12] Lathyrism is caused by:

  1.  Sanguinarine

  2.  BOAA

  3.  Pyruvic Acid

  4.  Mustard oil

Ans : B

13]    Incubation period of mumps is:

  1. 18 days

  2.  10 days

  3.  7 days

  4.  17 days

Ans : A

14] API is :

  1.  Annual parasitic index

  2.  Average parasitic index

  3.  animal parasite interval

  4.  None of the above

Ans : A

15] World health day is on:

  1.  7th April

  2.  10th October

  3.  21st May

  4.  23rd June

Ans : A

16] Odds ratio is:

  1.  Incidence among non exposed x incidence among exposed

  2.  Risk factors & outcome

  3.  Prevalence of disease

  4.  None

Ans : B

17] Iodine in salt is:

  1.  15 & 30ppm

  2. 15 & 40 ppm

  3.  20 & 40 ppm

  4.  10 & 20 ppm.

Ans : A

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ENT

1]      Dysphagia Lusoria is due to:

  1. Arch of aorta pressing over larynx
  2. Abnormal Origin of right subclavian artery pressing on larynx
  3. Abnormal right mammary artery
  4. Esophagus

Ans : B

2] Post cricoid malignancy is due to: 

  1.  Plummer vision syndrome
  2.  Alcohol
  3.  smoking
  4.  None of the above

Ans: A

3] Thornwaldt disease in inflammation of:

  1.  Pharyngeal bursa
  2.  Subhyoid bursa
  3.  Crypta Magna
  4.  Perform fossa

Ans : A

4] Chronic pharyngeal abscess is due to:

  1.  Caries in spine
  2.  tuberculosis of lungs
  3.  Cancer of larynx
  4.  chronic streptococcal infection

Ans: A

5] Tullio phenomenon is:

  1.  Better hearing in Noisy surroundings
  2.  Increased sensitivity
  3.  Impedance
  4.  vertigo in noisy surroundings

Ans: A

6] Noise level which can be tolerated by ears is:

  1.  85 dB
  2.  70 dB
  3.  120 dB
  4.  100 dB

Ans : A

7] Dangerous area of Nose is:

  1.  Little’s area
  2.  Woodruff’s area
  3.  Orfactory area
  4.  Posterior wall

Ans : A

8] Rhinitis sicca is due to drying of:

  1.  Anterior wall
  2.  Post. Wall
  3.  Septum
  4.  Roof of Nose

 Ans : C

9] Fibrous layer is absent inst:

  1.  Pars tensa
  2.  Pars flaccida
  3.  umbo
  4.  Annulus

Ans : B

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Ophthalmology

1] WHO defines blindness if visual acuity is:

  1.  Less than 3/60 vision

  2.  Less than 5/60

  3.  Less than 6/6

  4.  Less than 2/60

Ans : A

2] Cobble stone appearance is seen in:

  1. Vernal conjunctivitis
  2. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
  3. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
  4. Angular conjunctivitis

Ans : A

3] All are features of Horner’s syndrome except:

  1.  Anhydrosis
  2.  Ptosis
  3.  Proptosis
  4.  Miosis

Ans : C

4] Cherry Red spot is seen in:

  1.  CRAO
  2.  CRVO
  3.  Diabetes
  4.  Hypertension

Ans : A

5] Complicated cataract is not seen in:

  1.  Diabetes mellitus
  2.  Retinitis pigmentosa
  3.  Malignant myopia
  4.  Iridocyclitis

Ans : B

6] Enucleation is done in all except:

  1.  Total anterior staphyloma
  2.  Absolute glaucoma
  3.  Panopthalmitis
  4.  Pthisis bulb

Ans : A

7] Angle of anterior chamber is visualized by:

  1.  Gonioscope
  2.  Retinoscope
  3.  Ophthalmoscope
  4.  Optic wave chamber

Ans :A

8] Cherry red spot is seen in:

  1.  Tay sachs disease
  2.  Gaucher’s disease
  3.  Gangliosidosis
  4.  CRVO

Ans : A

9] Hardeolum internum is due to:

  1.  Chronic granulomatous inflammation of meibomian glands
  2.  Acute suppuration of Meibomian glands
  3. Acute granulomatous inflammation of meiboiman glands
  4.  Chronic suppuration of sebaceous glands

Ans : A

10] In myopia glasses used are:

  1. Convex
  2.  Concave
  3.  Cylindrical
  4.  Elliptical

Ans : B

11] Visual evoked potential in retro bulbar neuritis is:

  1.  P100
  2.  P300
  3.  Wave I
  4.  P450

Ans : D

12] Right homomymous hemianopia is due to defect at:

  1. Optic chiasma
  2.  Left optic tract 
  3.  Right optic radiation
  4.  Right optic nerve

Ans : C

13] True about Acute congestive glaucoma are all except:

  1.  Deep anterior chamber
  2.  Oval dilated pupil
  3.  Edematous cornea
  4.  Edematous optic disc

Ans : A

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Medicine

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Surgery

1] D/D for rectal prolapse in children is:

  1.  Rectal polyp

  2.  Intussusceptions

  3.  Both of above

  4.  None of above

Ans : B

2] Most physiological treatment of duodenal ulcer is:

  1.  Highly selective vagotomy

  2.  antrectomy

  3.  Vagotomy & gastrojejunostomy

  4.  Gastrojejunostomy

Ans : A

3] Injury to any abdominal organ due to injury is seen in cases of:

  1.  Rupture spleen

  2.  Fat embolism

  3.  Acute dilatation of stomach

  4.  Liver injury

Ans : A

4] Most common cause of acute pancreatitis is:

  1.  Gall stone

  2.  Alcohol

  3.  Trauma

  4.  Cyst

Ans: A

5] Ligation of which small artery of abdomen leads to immediate death of the patient:

  1.  Superior mesenteric artery

  2.  Inferior mesenteric artery

  3.  Inferior vena cava

  4.  Coronary artery

Ans: A

6] After appendectomy, fecal fistula is due to:

  1.  Crohn’s disease

  2.  ulcerative colitis

  3.  TB

  4.  Amebic colitis

Ans : B

7] Treatment of duodenal ulcer which has least recurrence is:

  1.  Vagotomy with antrectomy

  2.  Highly selective vagotomy

  3.  Vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy

  4.  Gastrojejnostomy

Ans : A

8] Incontinence in urinary tract infection is:

  1.  False

  2.  True

  3.  stress

  4.  Urge

Ans : D

9] Reverse intussusceptions is seen in :

  1.  Ileocaecal

  2.  Ileocolic

  3.  Colocolic

  4.  caecocolic

Ans : B

10] Most common surgical complication of typhoid is:

  1.  Perforation of ulcer

  2.  Cholecystitis

  3.  Hernia 

  4.  Peritonitis

Ans : A

11] Rupture of urethra is commonest in which part:

  1.  Membranous

  2.  Bulbar

  3.  Prostatic

  4.  Penval

Ans : B

12] Littre’s hernia includes:

  1.  Meckel’s diverticulum

  2.  Intestinal margins

  3.  Umblicus

  4.  Omentum

Ans: A

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OBG

1] Type of pelvis in which deep transverse arrest occurs is:

  1.  Android
  2.  Anthropoid
  3.  Gynecoid
  4.  Platy pelloid

Ans : A

2] All occurs in abruptio placentae except:

  1.  Coagulation failure

  2.  Renal failure

  3.  Uterine inversion

  4.  Intrauterine death

  5. Ans : C

3] All are benign Neoplasm's of ovary except:

  1.  Follicular cyst

  2.  Theca lutein cyst

  3.  Dermoid cyst

  4.  Corpus luteal cyst

Ans : C

4] Hyperemesis gravidarum is seen in all except:-

  1.  Vesicular mole

  2.  Primigravida

  3.  Pre-eclampsia

  4.  Multiple pregnancy

Ans : C

5] Failure of anterior rotation in occipito posterior is due to:

  1.  Insufficient uterine contractions

  2.  Average fetal size

  3.  Gynecoid pelvis

  4.  Station of Head is +1

Ans: A

6] Main indication for in vitro fertilization is 

  1.  Complete blockage of tubes

  2.  Myoma in uterus

  3.  Azoospermia

  4.  Cervical fibroid

Ans: A

7] Drug used in last stage of endometrial carcinoma is:

  1.  Danazol

  2.  O.C. Pills

  3.  Cisplatin

  4.  Levonorgestrol

Ans : C

8] All are interceptive contraception except:

  1. O.C. pills

  2. Centchromin

  3. Levonorgestrol

  4. Mifepristone

Ans : B

9] Normal sperm count is:

  1.  60-100 lakh/mm3

  2.  4-5 million/mm3

  3.  60-120 lakh/mm3

  4.  60-120 million/ml

Ans:D

10] Latest investigation used for diagnosis of tubal patency are all except:

  1.  Air insufflation test

  2.  Laparoscopic chromotubation

  3.  Hysterosalphingograph

  4.   Sonosalphingography

 Ans : A

11] Decubitus ulcer is produced due to:

  1.  Congestion

  2.  Inflammation

  3.  Malignancy

  4.  Dilatation

Ans : A

12] Gestational diabetes is not associated with:

  1.  Hydramnios

  2.  Neural tube defects

  3.  Dimorphic anemia

  4.  Family history

Ans : C

13] Color of lochia alba is due to:

  1.  Decidual cells

  2.  WBC

  3.  RBC

  4.  Pus cells

Ans :A

14] Stress incontinence in corrected by all except:

  1.  Shirodkar’s sling

  2.  Alridge sling

  3.  Kelly’s stitch

  4.  Morshall marchetti krantz

Ans: A

15] Ectopic pregnancy is managed conservatively by all except:

  1.  Methotrexate

  2.  Salphingostomy

  3.  Salphingectomy

  4.  Segmental resection

Ans : C

16] Ponderal index is:

  1. EFW/(FL)3 ,

  2.  FL/(AC)3 ,

  3.  WT / (ht)2,

  4.  HC/AC x100

Ans: A

17] Metropathia hemorehagica is characterized  by all except 

  1.  Metrorrhagia

  2.  Common at Menopause

  3.  Swiss cheese pattern of endometrium

  4.  Anovulation

Ans : B

18] Treatment of Endometriosis is all exception:

  1.  O.C. Pills

  2.  Danazol

  3.  Ganadotropin releasing horamor

  4.  GnRH against

Ans: B

19] Partogram is used for:

  1.  Normal delivery which requires assistance later

  2.  Normal delivery with fetal distress

  3.  Normal delivery which does not require any assistance

  4.  Mother and baby surveillance

Ans: A

20] HPV associated with carcinoma cervix is:

  1.  16

  2.  11

  3.  14

  4.  8

Ans: A

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Pediatrics

1] Kernicterus is due to:

  1. Albumin bound bilirubin
  2. Bilirubin diglucuroinde
  3.  Bilirubin monoglucuronide
  4.  Free bilirubin

Ans : D

2] Congenital strider is caused by:

  1.  Laryngomalacia

  2.  Laryngeal slenosis

  3.  Ca Larynx

  4.  Foreign body

Ans : A

3] Child care virus is:

  1.  Adenovirus

  2.  Para influenza

  3.  Herpes D

  4.  Chicken pox virus

Ans : A 

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Orthopedics

1] The muscle pair which rotates radius without flexion and extension at arm is:

  1.  Pronator quadratus and pronator teres
  2.  Supinator and Anconeus
  3.  Bachioradialis and brachialis
  4.  Triceps and Biceps brachii

Ans : B

2] Osteomyelitis is common in:

  1.  Frontal sinus

  2.  Ethmoid sinus

  3.  sphenoid sinus

  4.  maxillary sinus

Ans : A

3] Diastomatomyelia is due to:

  1.  Gap in the spinal cord

  2.  Spur in the spinal cord

  3.  Both of the above

  4.  None of the above

Ans : A

4] Cubitus varus is most commonly due to:

  1. Supracondylar fracture of humerus

  2. Olecranon fracture

  3. Congenital

  4. None of the above

Ans : A

5] Lunate bone osteoarthritis is called as:

  1.  Kohler’s

  2.  Keinbock

  3.  Freeburg

  4.  Perthes

Ans : A

6] KANAVEL’S sign is:

  1.  Acute tenosynovitis

  2.  Acute appendicitis

  3.  Rupture of spleen

  4.  Acute pancreatitis

Ans : A

7] The amount of fluid in knee joint is:

  1.  0.4ml – 0.7 ml

  2.  0.7ml – 2 ml

  3.  7-11 ml

  4.  11-12 ml

Ans : B

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Dermatology

1] In peutz jegher’s syndrome skin lesion seen is:

  1.   Freckles
  2.   Lentigines
  3.  Café au lait spots
  4.  Shagreen patch

Ans : B

2] Wicham’s striae is seen in:

  1.  Lichen planus

  2.  Psoriasis

  3.  Pityriasis versicolor

  4.  Pemphigus vulgaris

Ans : A

3] Maculopapular rash in seen in:

  1.  Chicken pox

  2.  Typhoid

  3.  Measles

  4.  Dengue

Ans: C

4] Erythema nodosum is seen in:

  1.  Sulphonamides

  2.  Phenylbutazone

  3.  Digoxin

  4.  Ciprofloxacin.

Ans: A

5] Surgical wound infection is due to

  1.  Staphylococcus aureus

  2.  S. epidermidis

  3.  Streptococcus

  4.  Hemophilus influenzae

Ans : B

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Psychiatry

1] Nacrolepsy is:

  1.  Sudden episodes of sleep
  2.  Night sleep
  3.  Narcolepsy due to epilepsy
  4.  Nacrolepsy due to sleep

Ans: A

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