Index

Anatomy

1]     Posterior boundary of foramen of Winslow is formed by:

1.  Aorta

2. Inferior vena cava

3. Portal vein

4. Liver 

Ans : B

2] Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by:

1. Ligament of Treitz

2.  Superior mesenteric artery

3.  Falciform ligament

4. Tail of pancreas

Ans : A

3] External ear is developed from:

1. 1^st brachial arch

2.  2^nd brachial cleft

3.  1^st brachial cleft

4.  2^nd brachial arch.

Ans : A

4] Joint at Knee is:

1.  Synarthrosis

2.  Symphysis

3. Amphiarthrosis

4. Diarthrosis

Ans : C

5] Depression of mandible is brought about by:

1. Medial pterygoid

2. Lateral pterygoid

3.  Masseter

4.  Buccinator

Ans : B

6] The transfer of body weight  in vertebral column is through:-

1.  Laminae

2. Pedicle

3. Vertebral body

4.  Neural arch 

Ans : C

7]  Spinal nerves are mixed because they contain:

1. Sensory and motor

2. Dorsal & ventral roots

3. Come through inter vertebral foramen

4. Constitute both craniosacral and the thoracolumbar out flow.

Ans : A

8] Ossification centre of which bone appears with premolar tooth:

1.  Pisiform

2. Olecranon process

3. Lateral condyle of humerus

4. Radial tuberosity

Ans : B

9] Lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by:

1. Femoral artery

2. Femoral vein

3. Sartorius

4. Lacunar ligament

Ans : C

10 ] Fecal fistula at umbilicus is due to persistence of:

1.  Vitellointestinal duct

2. Patent urachus

3. Remnant of urachus

4. Ligamentum arteriosum

Ans : A

11] Main supply of small gut is by:

1. Superior mesenteric Artery

2. Inferior mesenteric artery

3. Middle colic artery

4.  Celiac Axis

Ans : A

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Physiology & Biochemistry

1] Absorption of H₂O in PCT is characteristic by all except:

1.  Vasopressin dependent

2.  60% of water is absorbed

3.  Depends on solutes

4. Vasopressin independent

Ans : A

2] Cerebellar Ataxia is characterized by all except:

1. Resting tremor

2. Dysdiadochokinesis

3. Ataxia

4. Hypotonia

Ans : A

3] Parasympathetic stimulation of tissues in walls of bronchioles causes:

1.  Bronchoconstriction

2. Bronchodilation

3.  Increased blood flow

4. Dilatation of alveoli.

Ans: A

4] Absorption of vitamin D in intestine is helped by:

1.  Calcium

2. Potassium

3. Magnesin

4. Iron

Ans: A

5] Function of cochlea is:

1. Auditory function

2. Nerve deafness

3. Basilar membrane is tuned

4.  Equilibruin is disturbed 

Ans : A

6] Avoiding response is due to:

1.  Ispilateral frontal lobe lesions

2.  Contra lateral frontal lobe lesions

3.  Ipsilateral parietal lobe lesions

4. Contralateral parietal lobe lesions

Ans : B

7] Posterior pituitary hormones are:

1. ADH and Oxytocin

2. TRH and FSH

3. Vasopressin and CRH

4.  Oxyticin and ACTH

Ans : A

8] Action potential is:

1. Decremented phenomenon

2. Doesn’t obey all or none phenomenon

3. K+ goes from ECF to ICF

4. Threshold stimulus is required

Ans : D

9] Anabolic hormones are all except:

1. Cortisol

2. Testosterone

3. Growth Hormone

4. Insulin

Ans : A

10] Competitive inhibition is characterized by:

1.  Increased Km and V Max is same

2.  increased Vmax and Km remains constant

3.  increased Km and increased Vmax

4. Decreased Km and increased Vmax

Ans : A

11] Macrophages in the walls of arteries have receptors for:

1. Oxidized IDL

2. Oxidized LDL

3.  LDL

4. IDL

Ans: B

12] Collagen synthesis, hydroxyproline is converted to:

1. Prolene

2. Lysine

3. Hydroxy lysine

4. None of the above

Ans: A

13] Ammonium ion is released by:

1. Arginase

2. Glutamate dehydrogenises

3. Glutaminase

4. All of the above

Ans: B

14] Salivary secretion does all except:

1.  Lubrication

2.  Taste sensation 

3. Digestion of carbohydrates

4. Digestion of proteins

Ans : D

15] Inability to understand, speak or read is:

1. Dyslexia

2. Aphasia

3. Disconnection syndrome

4.  Ataxia

Ans : A

16] Frequency of Alpha waves is:

1. 4-6

2. > 13

3. 8-13

4.  2-4

Ans: C

17] Normal testicular development requires:

1. XY

2. XX 

3.  Y chromosome

4. X chromosome 

Ans : A

18] PR interval is:

1.  0.12- 0.16 seconds

2. 0.3 - 0.4 sec.

3. 0.6 - 0.8 sec.

4. 0.12 -4 sec.

Ans : A

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Pharmacology

1]  Friedrich type V hyperlipidemia is due to excess of:

1. HDL
2. LDL
3. IDL
4. Chylomicrons

Ans : D

2] Benzathine penicillin is given in:

1. primary syphilis
2. Acute gonorrhea
3. Bacterial endocarditis
4. meningococcal infection

Ans: A

3] Epinephrine is not used is:

1. Chronic bronchial asthma
2. Local homeostasis
3. Anaphylaxis
4. All of the above

Ans : A

4] Aspirin should not be used in:

1. Dysmenorrhea
2. Viral infection
3. Ischemic heart disease
4. Inflammation

Ans : B

5] Mechanism of action of Amiodarone is:

1. Prolongs APD
2. Blocks inactivated Na+ channel
3.  Inhibits myocardial Ca++ channel
4. All of the above

Ans : D

6] Famotidine and cimetidine are different in their action in:

1. Oral absorption
2. Duration of action
3. Mechanism of action
4.  Anti androgenic action

Ans : B

7] About succinyl choline all are true except:

1.  Neostigmine reversal
2. Persistent depolarization
3. Short acting
4. metabolized by pseudo cholinesterase

Ans : B

8] Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is treated by:

1. Thiazides
2. Carbamazepine
3. Vasopressin
4. Cyclophosphamide

Ans : A

9] Prolactin inhibition is caused by:

1. Dopamine
2. Bromocriptine antagonist
3. CRH
4. Acetylcholine

Ans : A

10] Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers have common indications in all except:

1. variant angina
2. Migraine
3. Hypertension
4. None of the above

Ans : A

11] Mebendazole is not given in:

1. Intestinal amoebiasis
2. Ascariasis
3. Ancylostoma duodenale
4. Trichurea trichuris

Ans: A

12] Most common side effect of zidovudine is:

1. Hemolytic Anemia
2. Myopathy
3. Bone marrow depression
4. Hepatotoxicity

Ans: C

13] Chlamydial infection in treated by:

1.  tetracycline
2. chloramphenicol
3. Amoxicillin
4. Penicillin

Ans : A

14] Mechanism of action of INH include all except:

1. Kills intracellular bacilli
2. Kills dormant bacilli
3. Most dangerous complication is peripheral neuritis
4. It penetrates all body tissues 

Ans: B

15] Clavulanic acid acts by:

1. B-lactamase inhibitor
2. Non progressive inhibitor
3. Extended spectrum penicillin
4. None of the above 

Ans : A

16] Which is not true about meperidine:

1. Drug dependence
2. Houring short half life than morphine
3. More spasmogenic than morphine
4. Action is antagonize by Naloxone

Ans : C

17] Mechanism of action of biphosphonates is:

1. Increased urinary excretion of calcium
2. Osteoclastmediated re absorption inhibition
3. Decreased absorption of calcium from gut.
4. Increased absorption of calcium from gut

Ans :B

18] B1 action of epinephrine is seen in all except:

1. Angina pectoris
2. Ventricular arrhythmias
3. Slow arrhythmias
4.  Intestinal relaxation

Ans : D

19] Atropine is used for all except:

1. Corneal ulcer
2. Children with myopia
3. Iridocyclitis
4. narrow angle glaucoma

Ans : D

20] Plasma half life of drugs:

1.  Maximum effective dose of drug
2. max. lethal effect
3. potency of drug
4. Dose frequency interval

Ans : D

21] Photosensitivity is caused by:

1. Digoxin
2. Amiodarone
3. Phenytoin
4. Carbamazepine

Ans : B

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Pathology

1] In AML Chromosomal anomaly is:

1. 9 & 22

2. 21 & 9

3.  20 & 10

4.  8 & 14

Ans : D

2] Highly selective proteinuria contains:

1. fibrinogen and albumin

2. transferin

3. transferrin and fibrinogen

4. fibrinogen

Ans : A

3] Edward syndrome is due to:

1.  Chromosome 18 anomaly

2.  Chromosome 13 anomaly

3.  Chromosome 11 anomaly

4.  Chromosome & anomaly

Ans : A

4] Turner’s syndrome is:

1. XO

2. XXY

3. XXX

4. XXO

Ans : A

5] Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all except:

1. Crypt abscess

2. Sub mucosal inflammation

3. Pseudo polyps seen

4. Fistula formation

Ans : D

6] M4 stage of AML is called as:

1. Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia

2. Acute monoblastic leukemia

3. Myelomonocytic leukemia

4. Monocytic leukemia

Ans : A

7] About neutrophils all are incorrect except:-

1. 10-20% of all leucocytes.

2. Phagocytosis

3. Antibody formation

4. Increase in chronic infections

Ans : B

8] In leprosy nerve involved is:

1. Ulnar Nerve

2. Median

3. Radial

4. Axillary

Ans : A

9]  Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to:

1.  oat cell carcinoma

2. squamous cell carinoma

3. Adenocarcinoma

4.  adenosqumous

Ans : C

10] DIC is caused by all except:

1. IUD

2. septic abortion

3. extramniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate

4.  Ammiotic fluid embolism

Ans : C

11] Giant  cell tumour source of cells is :

1. Osteoclast

2. Osteoblasts

3. Osteoid

4. Unknown

Ans : D

12] Cells in M4 AML are:

1.  Monoblasts & myeloblasts

2.  Myeloblasts only

3. Monocytes & myelocytes

4. erythroid cells

Ans : A

13] Most common tumor of appendix is:

1. Carcinoid

2. Squamous cell

3. Adenocarcinoma

4. Argentaffin type

Ans : A

14] Stricture of gut is caused by:

1. Typhoid

2. tuberculosis

3. Crohn’s disease

4. Ulcerative colitis

Ans : B

15] Lipooxygenase mediated chemotaxis is by:

1.  B4

2. C4

3. D4

4. E4

Ans : A

16] Exchange of genetic material takes place in:

1. Prophase –I

2.  Prophase II

3.  Metaphase

4.  Telophase

Ans : C

17] Thromboxane A₂ causes:

1. Vasodilatation

2. Platelet inhibition

3. None of the above

4. Both of above

Ans : C

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Microbiology

1] Appendicitis like syndrome is caused by:

1.  Brucella abortis
2.  Yersinia tuberculosis
3.  Pasturella multocida
4. Yersenia pestis 

Ans : C

2] Hep B infection, window period is characterized by:

1.  Anti HBS antibody
2.  HBS antigen
3. Anti HBE
4.  HBE

Ans : A

3] Visceral larva migrans is caused by:

1.  Toxocara canis
2.  Toxoplasma
3.  Toxocora cutis
4.  Ascariasis

Ans : A

4]  In immuno-compromised person, fungal viral, protozoal infection are due to deficiency of:

1.  T lymphocytes
2.  B lymphocytes
3.  Macrophages
4.  Neutrophils

Ans : A

5] Fungi affecting retroculo-endothelial cells are:

1.  Cryptcoccus
2.  Histoplasmosis
3.  Sporothrix
4.  Cryptosporidium

Ans : B

6]  Antigenic drift in influenza virus infections is due to:

1.  Small mutation in neuraminidase and hem agglutinin.
2.  Large mutations in hem agglutinin only
3.  Step mutations in viral genome
4.  None of the above

Ans : A

7] Long lasting immunity in hepatitis infection is due to:

1.  IgA
2.  IgG
3.  IgM
4.  IgE

Ans : A

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Forensic

1] Basophilic stippling is seen in:

1.  RBC
2.  WBC
3.  Neutrophils
4.  Basophiles 

Ans : A

2] Sentence of death is passed in which judicial court:

1.  High court
2.  Supreme court
3.  session court
4.  Assistant session court 

Ans : A

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P&SM

1] Savlon contains:

1.  Chlorhexidine and chlorxylenol
2.  Cetavlon and chlorhexidine
3.  Cetavlon and habitane
4.  Hibitane and chlorxylenol

Ans : B

2] Sullivan index indications:

1.  Life free of disability
2.  Hook worm eggs/gm of stool
3.  standard of living
4.  Pregnancy rate per HWY

Ans : A

3] Global eradication of small pox was done on:

1.  26^th Oct 1977
2.  8^th May 1980
3.  17^th March 1980
4.  17^th April 1977

Ans : B

4] Limiting Amino acids in wheat are:

1. Methionine and Lysine
2.  Lysine and threonine
3.  Threonine and methionine
4.  Arginine and lysine

Ans : B

5] Path of longest duration is:

1.  Limiting path
2.  critical path
3.  cumulative path
4.  None of the above

Ans : B

6] Level of proteins in human milk is:

1.  0.8ng/dl
2.  0.9ng/dl
3.  1ng/dl
4.  2ng/dl

Ans : B

7] Fluoride content in drinking H₂O normally safe is:

1.  0.5-0.8 mg/dl
2.  0.8-0.1 ng/dl
3.  0.2-0.8ng/dl
4.  0.2-0.5mg/dl

Ans : A

8] Point of control in tuberculosis: 

1.  Prevalence is < 1 in 0-14 group of children
2.  > 1% is all children’s
3. <1% in 0-5yrs of age group
4. <2% in 0-14 group.

Ans: A

9] PQLI index includes all except:

1.  Life expectancy at 1 yr of age
2.  Per capita income
3.  Literacy
4.  IMR

Ans : B

10] Positive size of respire able dust is:

1.  1-5microgm
2.  5-10microgm
3.  15microgm
4.  20microgm

Ans : A

11] Sensitivity is:

1. True positives + false positives /True positives
2. True positives / T.P + F.P
3. True positive / T.P + false negatives
4. True negatives / true positive + false negatives

Ans : B

12] Lathyrism is caused by:

1.  Sanguinarine

2.  BOAA

3.  Pyruvic Acid

4.  Mustard oil

Ans : B

13]    Incubation period of mumps is:

1. 18 days

2.  10 days

3.  7 days

4.  17 days

Ans : A

14] API is :

1.  Annual parasitic index

2.  Average parasitic index

3.  animal parasite interval

4.  None of the above

Ans : A

15] World health day is on:

1.  7^th April

2.  10^th October

3.  21^st May

4.  23^rd June

Ans : A

16] Odds ratio is:

1.  Incidence among non exposed x incidence among exposed

2.  Risk factors & outcome

3.  Prevalence of disease

4.  None

Ans : B

17] Iodine in salt is:

1.  15 & 30ppm

2. 15 & 40 ppm

3.  20 & 40 ppm

4.  10 & 20 ppm.

Ans : A

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ENT

1]      Dysphagia Lusoria is due to:

1. Arch of aorta pressing over larynx
2. Abnormal Origin of right subclavian artery pressing on larynx
3. Abnormal right mammary artery
4. Esophagus

Ans : B

2] Post cricoid malignancy is due to: 

1.  Plummer vision syndrome
2.  Alcohol
3.  smoking
4.  None of the above

Ans: A

3] Thornwaldt disease in inflammation of:

1.  Pharyngeal bursa
2.  Subhyoid bursa
3.  Crypta Magna
4.  Perform fossa

Ans : A

4] Chronic pharyngeal abscess is due to:

1.  Caries in spine
2.  tuberculosis of lungs
3.  Cancer of larynx
4.  chronic streptococcal infection

Ans: A

5] Tullio phenomenon is:

1.  Better hearing in Noisy surroundings
2.  Increased sensitivity
3.  Impedance
4.  vertigo in noisy surroundings

Ans: A

6] Noise level which can be tolerated by ears is:

1.  85 dB
2.  70 dB
3.  120 dB
4.  100 dB

Ans : A

7] Dangerous area of Nose is:

1.  Little’s area
2.  Woodruff’s area
3.  Orfactory area
4.  Posterior wall

Ans : A

8] Rhinitis sicca is due to drying of:

1.  Anterior wall
2.  Post. Wall
3.  Septum
4.  Roof of Nose

 Ans : C

9] Fibrous layer is absent inst:

1.  Pars tensa
2.  Pars flaccida
3.  umbo
4.  Annulus

Ans : B

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Ophthalmology

1] WHO defines blindness if visual acuity is:

1.  Less than 3/60 vision

2.  Less than 5/60

3.  Less than 6/6

4.  Less than 2/60

Ans : A

2] Cobble stone appearance is seen in:

1. Vernal conjunctivitis
2. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
3. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
4. Angular conjunctivitis

Ans : A

3] All are features of Horner’s syndrome except:

1.  Anhydrosis
2.  Ptosis
3.  Proptosis
4.  Miosis

Ans : C

4] Cherry Red spot is seen in:

1.  CRAO
2.  CRVO
3.  Diabetes
4.  Hypertension

Ans : A

5] Complicated cataract is not seen in:

1.  Diabetes mellitus
2.  Retinitis pigmentosa
3.  Malignant myopia
4.  Iridocyclitis

Ans : B

6] Enucleation is done in all except:

1.  Total anterior staphyloma
2.  Absolute glaucoma
3.  Panopthalmitis
4.  Pthisis bulb

Ans : A

7] Angle of anterior chamber is visualized by:

1.  Gonioscope
2.  Retinoscope
3.  Ophthalmoscope
4.  Optic wave chamber

Ans :A

8] Cherry red spot is seen in:

1.  Tay sachs disease
2.  Gaucher’s disease
3.  Gangliosidosis
4.  CRVO

Ans : A

9] Hardeolum internum is due to:

1.  Chronic granulomatous inflammation of meibomian glands
2.  Acute suppuration of Meibomian glands
3. Acute granulomatous inflammation of meiboiman glands
4.  Chronic suppuration of sebaceous glands

Ans : A

10] In myopia glasses used are:

1. Convex
2.  Concave
3.  Cylindrical
4.  Elliptical

Ans : B

11] Visual evoked potential in retro bulbar neuritis is:

1.  P₁₀₀
2.  P₃₀₀
3.  Wave I
4.  P₄₅₀

Ans : D

12] Right homomymous hemianopia is due to defect at:

1. Optic chiasma
2.  Left optic tract 
3.  Right optic radiation
4.  Right optic nerve

Ans : C

13] True about Acute congestive glaucoma are all except:

1.  Deep anterior chamber
2.  Oval dilated pupil
3.  Edematous cornea
4.  Edematous optic disc

Ans : A

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Medicine

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Surgery

1] D/D for rectal prolapse in children is:

1.  Rectal polyp

2.  Intussusceptions

3.  Both of above

4.  None of above

Ans : B

2] Most physiological treatment of duodenal ulcer is:

1.  Highly selective vagotomy

2.  antrectomy

3.  Vagotomy & gastrojejunostomy

4.  Gastrojejunostomy

Ans : A

3] Injury to any abdominal organ due to injury is seen in cases of:

1.  Rupture spleen

2.  Fat embolism

3.  Acute dilatation of stomach

4.  Liver injury

Ans : A

4] Most common cause of acute pancreatitis is:

1.  Gall stone

2.  Alcohol

3.  Trauma

4.  Cyst

Ans: A

5] Ligation of which small artery of abdomen leads to immediate death of the patient:

1.  Superior mesenteric artery

2.  Inferior mesenteric artery

3.  Inferior vena cava

4.  Coronary artery

Ans: A

6] After appendectomy, fecal fistula is due to:

1.  Crohn’s disease

2.  ulcerative colitis

3.  TB

4.  Amebic colitis

Ans : B

7] Treatment of duodenal ulcer which has least recurrence is:

1.  Vagotomy with antrectomy

2.  Highly selective vagotomy

3.  Vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy

4.  Gastrojejnostomy

Ans : A

8] Incontinence in urinary tract infection is:

1.  False

2.  True

3.  stress

4.  Urge

Ans : D

9] Reverse intussusceptions is seen in :

1.  Ileocaecal

2.  Ileocolic

3.  Colocolic

4.  caecocolic

Ans : B

10] Most common surgical complication of typhoid is:

1.  Perforation of ulcer

2.  Cholecystitis

3.  Hernia 

4.  Peritonitis

Ans : A

11] Rupture of urethra is commonest in which part:

1.  Membranous

2.  Bulbar

3.  Prostatic

4.  Penval

Ans : B

12] Littre’s hernia includes:

1.  Meckel’s diverticulum

2.  Intestinal margins

3.  Umblicus

4.  Omentum

Ans: A

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OBG

1] Type of pelvis in which deep transverse arrest occurs is:

1.  Android
2.  Anthropoid
3.  Gynecoid
4.  Platy pelloid

Ans : A

2] All occurs in abruptio placentae except:

1.  Coagulation failure

2.  Renal failure

3.  Uterine inversion

4.  Intrauterine death

5. Ans : C

3] All are benign Neoplasm's of ovary except:

1.  Follicular cyst

2.  Theca lutein cyst

3.  Dermoid cyst

4.  Corpus luteal cyst

Ans : C

4] Hyperemesis gravidarum is seen in all except:-

1.  Vesicular mole

2.  Primigravida

3.  Pre-eclampsia

4.  Multiple pregnancy

Ans : C

5] Failure of anterior rotation in occipito posterior is due to:

1.  Insufficient uterine contractions

2.  Average fetal size

3.  Gynecoid pelvis

4.  Station of Head is +1

Ans: A

6] Main indication for in vitro fertilization is 

1.  Complete blockage of tubes

2.  Myoma in uterus

3.  Azoospermia

4.  Cervical fibroid

Ans: A

7] Drug used in last stage of endometrial carcinoma is:

1.  Danazol

2.  O.C. Pills

3.  Cisplatin

4.  Levonorgestrol

Ans : C

8] All are interceptive contraception except:

1. O.C. pills

2. Centchromin

3. Levonorgestrol

4. Mifepristone

Ans : B

9] Normal sperm count is:

1.  60-100 lakh/mm3

2.  4-5 million/mm3

3.  60-120 lakh/mm3

4.  60-120 million/ml

Ans:D

10] Latest investigation used for diagnosis of tubal patency are all except:

1.  Air insufflation test

2.  Laparoscopic chromotubation

3.  Hysterosalphingograph

4.   Sonosalphingography

 Ans : A

11] Decubitus ulcer is produced due to:

1.  Congestion

2.  Inflammation

3.  Malignancy

4.  Dilatation

Ans : A

12] Gestational diabetes is not associated with:

1.  Hydramnios

2.  Neural tube defects

3.  Dimorphic anemia

4.  Family history

Ans : C

13] Color of lochia alba is due to:

1.  Decidual cells

2.  WBC

3.  RBC

4.  Pus cells

Ans :A

14] Stress incontinence in corrected by all except:

1.  Shirodkar’s sling

2.  Alridge sling

3.  Kelly’s stitch

4.  Morshall marchetti krantz

Ans: A

15] Ectopic pregnancy is managed conservatively by all except:

1.  Methotrexate

2.  Salphingostomy

3.  Salphingectomy

4.  Segmental resection

Ans : C

16] Ponderal index is:

1. EFW/(FL)³ ,

2.  FL/(AC)³ ,

3.  WT / (ht)²,

4.  HC/AC x100

Ans: A

17] Metropathia hemorehagica is characterized  by all except 

1.  Metrorrhagia

2.  Common at Menopause

3.  Swiss cheese pattern of endometrium

4.  Anovulation

Ans : B

18] Treatment of Endometriosis is all exception:

1.  O.C. Pills

2.  Danazol

3.  Ganadotropin releasing horamor

4.  GnRH against

Ans: B

19] Partogram is used for:

1.  Normal delivery which requires assistance later

2.  Normal delivery with fetal distress

3.  Normal delivery which does not require any assistance

4.  Mother and baby surveillance

Ans: A

20] HPV associated with carcinoma cervix is:

1.  16

2.  11

3.  14

4.  8

Ans: A

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Pediatrics

1] Kernicterus is due to:

1. Albumin bound bilirubin
2. Bilirubin diglucuroinde
3.  Bilirubin monoglucuronide
4.  Free bilirubin

Ans : D

2] Congenital strider is caused by:

1.  Laryngomalacia

2.  Laryngeal slenosis

3.  Ca Larynx

4.  Foreign body

Ans : A

3] Child care virus is:

1.  Adenovirus

2.  Para influenza

3.  Herpes D

4.  Chicken pox virus

Ans : A 

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Orthopedics

1] The muscle pair which rotates radius without flexion and extension at arm is:

1.  Pronator quadratus and pronator teres
2.  Supinator and Anconeus
3.  Bachioradialis and brachialis
4.  Triceps and Biceps brachii

Ans : B

2] Osteomyelitis is common in:

1.  Frontal sinus

2.  Ethmoid sinus

3.  sphenoid sinus

4.  maxillary sinus

Ans : A

3] Diastomatomyelia is due to:

1.  Gap in the spinal cord

2.  Spur in the spinal cord

3.  Both of the above

4.  None of the above

Ans : A

4] Cubitus varus is most commonly due to:

1. Supracondylar fracture of humerus

2. Olecranon fracture

3. Congenital

4. None of the above

Ans : A

5] Lunate bone osteoarthritis is called as:

1.  Kohler’s

2.  Keinbock

3.  Freeburg

4.  Perthes

Ans : A

6] KANAVEL’S sign is:

1.  Acute tenosynovitis

2.  Acute appendicitis

3.  Rupture of spleen

4.  Acute pancreatitis

Ans : A

7] The amount of fluid in knee joint is:

1.  0.4ml – 0.7 ml

2.  0.7ml – 2 ml

3.  7-11 ml

4.  11-12 ml

Ans : B

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Dermatology

1] In peutz jegher’s syndrome skin lesion seen is:

1.   Freckles
2.   Lentigines
3.  Café au lait spots
4.  Shagreen patch

Ans : B

2] Wicham’s striae is seen in:

1.  Lichen planus

2.  Psoriasis

3.  Pityriasis versicolor

4.  Pemphigus vulgaris

Ans : A

3] Maculopapular rash in seen in:

1.  Chicken pox

2.  Typhoid

3.  Measles

4.  Dengue

Ans: C

4] Erythema nodosum is seen in:

1.  Sulphonamides

2.  Phenylbutazone

3.  Digoxin

4.  Ciprofloxacin.

Ans: A

5] Surgical wound infection is due to

1.  Staphylococcus aureus

2.  S. epidermidis

3.  Streptococcus

4.  Hemophilus influenzae

Ans : B

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Psychiatry

1] Nacrolepsy is:

1.  Sudden episodes of sleep
2.  Night sleep
3.  Narcolepsy due to epilepsy
4.  Nacrolepsy due to sleep

Ans: A

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