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PAGE VIEWS

 

PAGE VIEWS

 

1]  Duchene Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of:

1. Neuromuscular junction.

2. Sarcolemmal proteins.

3. Muscle contractile proteins.

4. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness.

ANS : 3  [ CMDT 2001 / Pg 1025 ] 

Muscular Dystrophies

These inherited myopathic disorders are character­ized by progressive muscle weakness and wasting. They are subdivided by mode of inheritance, age at onset, and clinical features, as shown in Table 24-6. In the Duchenne type, pseudohypertrophy of muscles frequently occurs at some stage; intellectual retardation is common; and there may be skeletal deformities, muscle contractures, and cardiac involvement. The serum creatine kinase level is increased, especially in the Duchenne and Becker varieties, and mildly increased also in limb-girdle dystrophy. Electromyography may help to confirm that weakness is myopathic rather than neurogenic. Similarly, histopathologic examination of a muscle biopsy specimen may help to confirm that weakness is due to a primary disorder of muscle and to distinguish between various muscle diseases.

A genetic defect on the short arm of the X chromosome has been identified in Duchenne dystrophy. The affected gene codes for the protein dystrophin, which is markedly reduced or absent from the muscle of patients with the disease. Dystrophin levels are generally normal in the Becker variety, but the protein is qualitatively altered.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy can now be recog­nized early in pregnancy in about 95% of women .


2] The short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

1. Diarrhea.

2. Hypogastrinemia.

3. Weight loss.

4. Steatorrhoea.

Ans : 2 [ CMDT 2001 / Pg 623 ]

Terminal Ileal Resection

Resection of the terminal ileum results in mal­absorption of bile salts and vitamin B 12' which are normally absorbed in this region. Patients with low Serum vitamin B12 levels, an abnormal Schilling test, resection of over 50 cm of ileum require monthly intramuscular vitamin Bl1 injections. In patients with less than 100 cm of ileal resection, bile salt mal­absorption stimulates fluid secretion from the colon, resulting in watery diarrhea. This may be treated with bile salt binding resins (cholestyrarnine, 2-4 g three times daily with meals). Resection of over 100 cm of ileum leads to a reduction in the bile salt pool results in steatorrhea and malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Treatment is with a low-fat diet and vitamins supplemented with medium-chain triglyc­erides, which do not-require micellar solubilization. Unabsorbed fatty acids bind with calcium, reducing its absorption and enhancing the absorption of oxalate. Oxalate kidney stones may develop. Calcium supplements should be administered to bind oxalate and increase serum calcium. Cholesterol gall­stones due to decreased bile salts are common also. In patients With resection of the ileo-colonic valve, bacterial overgrowth may occur in the small intestine, further complicating malabsorption (as. outlined above). 


3] In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the:

1. Hepatic vein.

2. Post sinusoidal.

3. Extra hepatic portal vein.

4. Sinusoids.

Ans : 4 [ Harrison  15th/Pg 1759 ]

       Presinusoidal

                                             # Extra-hepatic - e.g. portal vein thrombosis

                           #  Intra-hepatic - e.g. schistosomiasis

            Sinusoidal- e.g. cirrhosis

        Postsinusoidal .­

            . Extra-hepatic - e.g. Budd-Chiari syndrome

                        Intra-hepatic - e.g. veno-occlusive disease affecting

                        central hepatic venules

 


4] In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is:

1. infra-hepatic inferior vena cava.

2. infra-renal inferior vena cava.

3. hepatic veins.

4. portal vein.

Ans : 3 ( Harrison Pg 1759)

Obstruction to the hepatic venous outflow can occur at the following levels.

* Central hepatic veins.

* Large hepatic veins.

* Inferior vena cava.

      * Heart.

Budd-Chiari syndrome is characterized by obstruction in the larger hepatic veins and occasionally in inferior vena cava.

 


5] Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatraemia?

1. Gastric fistula.

2. Excessive vomiting.

3. Excessive Sweating.

4. Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration.

Ans : 4 [ Harrison Pg 274 Table ]

Table 49-2 Causes of Hyponatremia [ Harrison 15th edition ]

I. Pseudohyponatremia

A. Normal plasma osmolality

1. Hyperlipidemia

2. Hyperproteinemia

3. Posttransurethral resection of prostate/bladder

 B. Increased plasma osmolality

1. Hyperglycemia

2. Mannitol

II. Hypoosmolal hyponatremia

A. Primary Na loss (secondary water gain)

1. Integumentary loss: sweating, bums

2. Gastrointestinal loss: vomiting, Fistulae, diarrhea

3. Renal loss: diuretics, osmotic diuresis, hypoal wasting nephropathy, post obstructive diuresis, tubular necrosis

B. Primary water gain (secondary Na loss)

1. Primary polydipsia

2. Decreased solute intake (e.g. beer potomania )

3. AVP release due to pain, nausea, drugs

4. Syndrome of inappropriate AVP secretion

5. Glucocorticoid deficiency

6. Hypothyroidism

7. Chronic renal insufficiency

C. Primary Na gain

1. Heart failure

2. Hepatic cirrhosis

3. Nephrotic syndrome

 


6] Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis?

1. alcoholic pancreatitis.

2. gall stone pancreatitis.

3. post operative pancreatitis.

4. idiopathic pancreatitis.

Ans : 2 ( Pg 703 / CMDT 2001)

Prognosis -. . ­

This is a serious disease and often leads to chronic disability. The prognosis is best in patients with re­current acute pancreatitis caused by a remediable condition such as cholelithiasis, choledocholithiasis, stenosis of the sphincter of Oddi, or hyperparathyroidism. Medical management of the hyperlipidemia frequently associated with the condition may also prevent recurrent attacks of pancreatitis. In alcoholic pancreatitis, pain relief is most likely when a dilated pancreatic duct can be decompressed. In patients with disease not amenable to decompressive surgery, addiction to narcotics is a frequent outcome of treat­ment.

 


7] Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing’s syndrome?

1. Loss of diurnal variation.

2. Increased ACTH.

3. Increased plasma Cortisol.

4. Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol.

Ans : 1 ( OP Ghai Pg 384 )


8] Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:

1. Klinefelter syndrome.

2. Turner syndrome.

3. Cri du chat syndrome.

4. Noonan syndrome.

Ans : B ( Explanation will be put up soon )


9] Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of:

1. 46, XYY.

2. 46,XY.

3. 46,XXY.

4. 46,X.

Ans 3 ( Explanation will be put up soon )


10] A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy products. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient’?

1. a-amylase.

2. -galactosidase.

3. u-glycosidase.

4. Sucrase.


11] . A 45-year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination.She also had the symptoms of diminished or Inpalpable pulses in the feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as follows:

Parameters

Fasting

1 hr

2hr

Blood glucose

155

270

205

[mg/dl]

 

 

 

Urine glucose

-ve

+++

++

Ketone bodies

-ve

-ve

-ve

Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned case?

 

1. She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.

2. She was suffering from non-insulin  dependent diabetes mellitus.

3. She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation.

4. Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of the diabetes.

Ans : 1 ( The Question is self explanatory )


12] Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's ability to handle oxidative stress?

    1. Calcium..

    2. Iron.

    3. Potassium.

          4. Selenium.

Ans : 4


  13] In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine kinase-l increases?

1. Myocardial Ischemia.

2. Brain Ischemia.

3. Kidney damage.

4. Electrical cardio version.

Ans : 1


14] A 20-year-old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm red cell casts in the urine and 12,000/mm serum creatinine 3 ing/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?

1. Henoch - Schonlein purpura.

2. Polyarteritis nodosa.

3. Wegener’s granulornatosis.

4. Disseminated tuberculosis.

[Ans : 3 / Harrison Pg 1961/ 15th edition--given below]

CLINICAL AND LABORATORY MANIFESTATIONS OF Wegener’s granulornatosis: A typical patient presents with severe upper respiratory tract findings such as Para nasal sinus pain and drainage and purulent or bloody nasal discharge with or without nasal mucosal ulceration (Table 317-4). Na­sal septal perforation may follow, leading to saddle nose deformity. Serous otitis media may occur as a result of Eustachian tube blockage. Hearing loss is also seen in some .

Pulmonary involvement may be manifested as asymptomatic in­filtrates or may be clinically expressed as cough, hemoptysis, dyspnoea, and chest discomfort. It is present in 85 to 90% of patients. Subglottic stenosis resulting from active disease or scarring occurs in approxi­mately 16% of patients and may result in, severe airway obstruction.

Eye involvement (52% of patients) may range from a mild con­junctivitis to dacryocystitis, episcleritis, scleritis, granulomatous scler­ouveitis, ciliary vessel vasculitis, and retro orbital mass lesions leading to proptosis.

Skin lesions (46% of patients) appear as papules, vesicles, palpable purpura, ulcers, or subcutaneous nodules; biopsy reveals vasculitis, granuloma, or both. Cardiac involvement (8% of patients) manifests as pericarditis, coronary vasculitis, or, rarely, cardiomyopathy. Ner­vous system manifestations (23 % of patients) include cranial neuritis, mononeuritis multiplex, or, rarely, cerebral vasculitis and/or granu­loma. /

Renal disease (77% of patients) generally dominates the clinical picture and, if left untreated, accounts directly or indirectly for most of the mortality in this disease. Although it may smolder in some cases as a mild glomerulitis with proteinuria, hematuria, and red blood cell casts, it is clear that once clinically detectable renal functional im­pairment occurs, rapidly progressive renal failure usually ensues unless appropriate treatment is instituted.

While the disease is active, most patients have nonspecific symp­toms and signs such as malaise, weakness, arthralgias, anorexia, and weight loss. Fever may indicate activity of the underlying disease but more often reflects secondary infection, usually of the upper airway.

Characteristic laboratory findings include a markedly elevated ESR, mild anemia and leukocytosis, mild hypergammaglobulinemia (particularly of the IgA class), and mildly elevated rheumatoid factor. Thrombocytosis may be seen as an acute-phase reactant. In typical Wegener's granulomatosis with granulomatous vasculitis of the res­piratory tract and glomerulonephritis, approximately 90% of patients have a positive c-ANCA.


15] A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except:

1. CD4/CD8 counts in the blood.

2. Serum ACE levels.

3. CECT of chest.

4. Gallium scan.

Ans : 3 ( Harrison 15th edition /Pg 1973 )

Features of Sarcoidosis

Disabling symptoms Fever Arthralgias Cough Dyspnoea Chest

  Discomfort

Exercise

  Limitation

 

Organ dysfunction Lung

Eye

Heart

CNS

Liver

 

Organ Derangement Enlarged lymph

Nodes Enlarged spleen Parotid swelling Cutaneous

Lesions

 

Ancillary criteria

ELevated numbersOf lavage Cd4 lymphocytes

Increased serum angiotensin­converting enzyme

Abnormal

  Gallium-67 scan

 


16] An 18-yr-old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies. antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Wegener’s granulomatosis.

2. Polyarteritis nodosa.

3. Takayasu’s arteritis.

4. Systemic lupus erythemazosus (SLE).

Ans : 2 ( Pg 921 Davidson 17th edition )

POLYARTERITIS NODOSA (PAN)

Classical PAN is a necrotizing vasculitis affecting medium sized arteries.

Epidemiology

PAN is a rare disorder with an annual incidence of only 5-10/million in most populations.

All age groups can be affected, with a peak incidence in the 4th and 5th decades and a male to female ratio of 2: 1. The incidence is ten times higher in the Inuit population of Alaska where hepatitis B infection is endemic.

Aetiology and pathogenesis

In most cases the aetiology of PAN is unknown. In 5-50%, however, depending on the population studied, PAN is associated with circulating immune complexes containing the hepatitis B surface antigen. Other viruses implicated include hepatitis A, cytomegalovirus, parvo­virus and HIV. Immune complex deposition is associ­ated with endothelial cell damage, intimal proliferation, panarteritis, fibrosis, organ infarction and aneurysm for­mation.

Clinical features

Clinical presentation is very variable. The major features are listed in Table 15.13. Some patients present with non-specific features of systemic illness such as fever, weight loss and profound fatigue. Myalgia, arthralgia and a non-erosive polyarthritis are common. In others there is evidence of obvious vasculitic damage with skin lesions such as ulcers, palpable purpura, Cutaneous infarcts or gangrene. Mononeuritis multiplex results from arthritic involvement of the vasa nervorum. In some patients the presentation is with severe hypertension and/or renal impairment and a significant number pre­sent as an acute surgical emergency with abdominal pain, peritonitis, pancreatitis, major gastrointestinal hemorrhage, gut or gall bladder infarction. Testicular pain, leg and jaw claudication can occur as a result of vascular occlusion and about a third of patients have some lung involvement with chest pain, consolidation or variable pulmonary infiltrates. The frequency of organ involvement is shown in Figure 15.36.


17] A 28-year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation ?

1. Serum electrolytes.

2. Plasma Cortisol.

3. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis.

4. T3. T4 and TSH.

Ans : 4 ( Pg 723 / Davidson 17th edition)

Clinical features in secondary amenorrhea

These will depend on the condition. If there is weight loss then this may be primary as in anorexia nervosa or secondary to an underlying disease such as TB, malig­nancy or hyperthyroidism. Weight gain may suggest Cushing’s syndrome, hypothyroidism or, very rarely, a hypothalamic lesion. Hirsutism may indicate androgen excess. A very common cause of this is the polycystic Ovary syndrome.


18] A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1 hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dl, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?

1. Nutritional rickets.

2. Renal rickets.

3. Hyperparathyroidism.

4. Skeletal dysplasia.

Ans : 3  ( Davidson Pg 702)

 

The diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism depends upon the finding of a raised serum calcium and raised PTH (Fig. 12.16). The serum PTH concentrations in other causes of Hypercalcemia are shown in Table 12.9.

It is preferable to avoid artefactual increases in serum calcium by collecting blood under standardized con­ditions with the patient supine and avoiding the use of a tourniquet while withdrawing the sample. Although changes in serum calcium in response to dietary intake are small, specimens should be collected with the patient fasting. If serum albumin is low, the value for calcium should be adjusted upward by 0.1 mmol/I for each 6 g/I that the albumin is below the laboratory mean. Serum phosphate is usually low in hyperparathyroidism and chloride elevated. Serum alkaline phosphatase, an index of osteoblastic activity, may be raised depending on the degree of involvement of bone.


19] All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women except:

1. It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention.

2. It is not related to menstrual cycles.

3. There is increased water retention in upright position.

4. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases.

Ans : 1 ( Pg 220/ Harrison 15th)

Idiopathic Edema This syndrome, which occurs almost exclusively in women, is characterized by periodic episodes of edema (un­related to the menstrual cycle), frequently accompanied by abdominal distention. Diurnal alterations in weight occur with orthostatic reten­tion of sodium and water, so that the patient may weigh several pounds more after having been in the upright posture for several hours. Such large diurnal weight changes suggest an increase in capillary perme­ability that appears to fluctuate in severity and to be aggravated by hot weather. There is some evidence that a reduction in plasma volume occurs in this condition with secondary activation of the RAA system & impaired suppression of A VP release. Idiopathic edema should be distinguished from cyclical or premenstrual edema, in which the sodium and water retention may be secondary to excessive estrogen stimulation. There are also some cases in which the edema appears to be 'diuretic-induced." It has been postulated that in these patients, chronic diuretic administration leads to mild blood volume depletion, which causes chronic hyperreninemia and juxtaglomerular hyperplasia. Salt-retaining mechanisms appear to overcompensate for the direct Effects of the diuretics. Acute withdrawal of diuretic can then leave the  sodium-retaining forces unopposed, leading to flu edema. Decreased dopaminergic activity and reduce krein and kinin excretion have been reported in this CO) also be of pathogenetic importance.


20] Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except:

1. Testosterone.

2. Prolactin.

3. Estradiol.

4. Luteinising hormone.

Ans : 2 ( pg 2171/Harrison 15th )

Diagnostic Evaluation for Gynecomastia : The evaluation of patients with gynecomastia should include: (1) a careful drug history; (2) measurement and examination of the testes (if both are small, a chromosomal karyotype should be obtained; if the testes are asymmetric, a workup for testicular tumor should be instituted); (3) evaluation of liver function; and (4) endocrine workup to include measurement of serum androstenedione or 24-h urinary 17-ketosteroids (usually elevated in femi­nizing adrenal states), measurement of plasma Estradiol and hCG (helpful if elevated but usually normal), and measurement of plasma LH and testosterone. If LH is high and testosterone is low, the diag­nosis is usually testicular failure; if LH and testosterone are both low, the diagnosis is most likely increased primary estrogen production (e.g., a Sertoli cell tumor of the testis), provided hypogonadotropic hypogonadism has been excluded; and if both LH and testosterone are elevated, the diagnosis is either an androgen-resistance state or a go­nadotropin-secreting tumor.


21] The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as:

1.   Jod — Basedow effect.

2.  Wolff-Chaikoff effect.

3.  Thyrotoxicosis factitia.

4.   De Quervain’s thyroiditis.

Ans : 1 ( Pg 2070 /Harrison 15th table)

Table 330-6

Causes of Thyrotoxicosis

Primary hyperthyroidism

Graves' disease

Toxic multinodular goiter

Toxic adenoma

Functioning thyroid carcinoma metastases

Activating mutation of the TSH receptor (autosomal dominant)

Struma ovarii

Drugs: iodine excess (Jod-Basedow phenomenon)

Thyrotoxicosis without hyperthyroidism

Subacute thyroiditis

Silent thyroiditis

Other causes of thyroid destruction: amiodarone, radiation, infarction of

     adenoma

    Ingestion of excess thyroid hormone (thyrotoxicosis factitia) or thyroid

     tissue

                Secondary hyperthyroidism

    TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma

    Thyroid hormone resistance syndrome: occasional patients may have fea­

     tures of thyrotoxicosis

    Chronic gonadotropin-secreting tumors"

    Gestational Thyrotoxicosis"


22] All of the following are seen in cardiac temponade except:

1. Pulsus paradoxus.

2. Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram.

3. Electrical alternans.

4. Kussmaul’s sign.

Ans :  ( Pg 1367 / Harrison 15th table )

Clinical features of cardiac tamponade:

Pulsus paradoxus--common

 Jugular veins  

Prominent y descent------absent

           Prominent x descent----present

Kussmaul's sign ---absent

Third heart sound----absent

 

Pericardial knock---------absent

 

Electrocardiogram

 Low ECG voltage --- may be present

Electrical alternans---may be present

 

 

Echocardiography

Thickened pericardium --absent

Pericardial calcification ---absent

Pericardial effusion---present

R V size----small

Myocardial thickness ----normal

Right atrial collapse and  RVDC-----present

Increased early filling,---absent

     i mitral flow velocity---present

Exaggerated respiratory---absent

        variation in flow velocity-----present

 

 

23] The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is:

1. T3

2. T4

3. TSH.

4. Thyroglobulin.

Ans : 3 ( Pg 2061 /Harrison 15th)

REGULATION OF THE THYROID AXIS

TSH, secreted by the thyrotrope cells of the anterior pi­tuitary plays a pivotal role in control of the thyroid axis and serves as the most useful physiologic marker of thy­roid hormone action. TSH is a 31-kDa hormone com­posed of a and f3 subunits; the a subunit is common to the other glycoprotein hormones [Luteinising hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, human chorionic gonado­tropin (hCG)], whereas the TSH f3 subunit is unique to TSH. The extent and nature of carbohydrate modification are modulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) !Simulation and influence the biologic activity of the hor­mone. TSH has been produced recombinantly and is ap­proved for use in the detection of residual thyroid cancer (see "Follow-up Whole-Body Scanning and Thyroglob­ulin Detenninations," below).

The thyroid axis is a classic example of an endocrine Deiodination feedback loop. Hypothalamic TRH stimulates pituitary hormone, rev, production of TSH, which, in turn, stimulates thyroid hor­

mone synthesis and secretion. Thyroid hormones feed back negatively 10 inhibit TRH and TSH production (Fig. 330-2). The "set-point" in this axis is established by TSH, the level of which is a sensitive and, specific marker of thyroid function. TRH is the major positive regulator of TSH synthesis and secretion. TRH acts through seven-trans­ membrane G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) that activates phos­pholipase C to generate phosphatidylinositol turnover and the release If intracellular calcium. Peak TSH secretion occurs ~ IS min after administration of exogenous TRH. Dopamine, glucocorticoids, and stomatostatin suppress TSH but are not of major physiologic impor­tance except when these agents are administered in pharmacologic doses. Reduced levels of thyroid hormone increase basal TSH production and enhance TRH-mediated stimulation of TSH. High thyroid IODINE levels rapidly and directly suppress TSH and inhibit TRH­, mediated stimulation of TSH, indicating that thyroid hormones are the imminent regulator of TSH production. Like other pituitary hormones, TSH is released in a pulsatile manner and exhibits a diurnal rhythm; highest levels occur at night. However, these TSH excursions are modest in comparison to those of other pituitary hormones, in part because TSH has a relatively long plasma half-life (50 min). Consequently  single measurements of TSH are adequate for assessing its circulating level. TSH is measured using immuno-radiometric assays

are highly sensitive and specific. These assays are capable of distinguishing between normal and suppressed TSH values, thus allowing H to be used for the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism (low TSH) as well as hypothyroidism (high TSH).


24] A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Acute pyogenic meningitis.

2. Herpes simplex encephalitis.

3. Neurocysticercosis.

4. Carcinomatous meningitis.

Ans : 3 ( Pg 1309 /CMDT 2001)

D. Herpes Encephalitis: Herpes simplex encephalitis presents with nonspecific symptoms: a flu-like prodrome, followed by head­ache, fever, behavioral and speech disturbances, and seizures that may be focal or generalized. A distin­guishing feature is a propensity to involve the tempo­ral lobe, with mass effect on imaging studies and temporal lobe seizure foci on EEGs. Cerebrospinal fluid white cell pleocytosis is common, and roughly equal numbers of red cells are also found.

HSV DNA polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in the cerebrospinal fluid is a rapid and sensitive and specific test.­


25] All are the features of absence seizures except:

1. Usually seen in childhood.

2. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG.

3. Postictal confusion.

4. Precipitation by hyperventilation.

Ans : 3 [ Pg 2355-56 /Harrison 15th ]

Absence Seizures (Petit Mal) Absence seizures are character­ized by sudden, brief lapses of consciousness without loss of postural control. The seizure typically lasts for only seconds, consciousness returns as suddenly as it was lost, and there is no postictal confusion. Although the brief loss of consciousness may be clinically in apparent or the sole manifestation of the seizure discharge, absence seizures are usually accompanied by subtle, bilateral motor signs such as rapid blinking of the eyelids, chewing movements, or small-amplitude, clonic movements of the hands.

Absence seizures usually begin in childhood (ages 4 to 8) or early adolescence and are the main seizure type in 15 to 20% of children with epilepsy. The seizures can occur hundreds of times per day, but the child may be unaware of or unable to convey their existence. This can lead to a situation in which the patient is constantly struggling to…………..


26] All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except:

1. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.

2. Acute intermittent porphyria.

3. Lead intoxication.

4. Arsenic intoxication.

Ans : 4 ( pg 2506/Harrison 15th)( Pg 202 /George mathews)

                    Causes                                                              Nature (clinical)

Acute

•               GB syndrome /                                                        Motor

•               Polyarteritis nodosa                                             Motor sensory

•               Diphtheria                                                                 Motor

•               Dapsone                                                               Motor sensory

•               Acute intermittent porphyria                              Motor sensory

Subacute

•               Nutritional deficiency                                       Sensory motor

•               Toxins

               Arsenic                                                                        Sensory

                Lead                                                                           Motor

•            Drugs

          Chlorgquine                                                                Sensory motor

            Phenytoin                                                                  Sensory motor

            Vincristine                                                                  Sensory motor

•      Industrial toxins

          Carbon tetrachioride                                                         Sensory

               Acrylamide                                                                  Sensory

               Aniline dyes                                                                Sensory

 Chronic

•              Diabetes                                                                    Sensory motor

               Carcinoma                                                                   Sensory

•            Chr. inflammatory                                                        Sensory motor

                  

 


27]  The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be:

1. Non-contrast computed tomography.

2. CSF examination.

3. Magnetic resonance imaging(MRI).

4. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography.

Ans : 1 ( Pg 987 /CMDT 2001)


28] All of the following statements are true about sickle cell disease except

1. Patient may require frequent blood transfusions.

2. Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before 3 years of age.

3. There is positive correlation between concentration HbS and polymerization of HbS.

4. Patient presents early in life before 6 months of age.

Ans : 1 //explanation will be put up soon//


29]  A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiograph examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumbed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed presence of a transmural hemorrhagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal

1. Edema in between normal myofibrils.

2. Necrotic myofibrils with presence of neutrophils.

3. Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of granulation tissue.

4. Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages.

Ans : 2 < EXPLAINATION WILL BE PUT UP SOON>


30] The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show edema, because:

1] The plasma oncotic pressure is high.

2] There is renal compensation.

3] Increased cardiac output.

4] There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure.

Ans : 4 { George mathews /pg 297}

Types of heart failure

Acute and chronic heart failure

        *      Acute heart failure develops suddenly. The sudden reduction in cardiac output results in systemic hypotension

               without peripheral  edema. Best examples are acute myocardial infarction and rupture of a cardiac valve.

        *      Chronic heart failure develops gradually. Here systemic arterial pressure is well maintained, but edema

               accumulates . Best examples are...dilated cardiomyopathy and multi-valvular disease.         

* Compensated heart failure implies that the compensatory changes have prevented the development of overt heart  failure. A minor insult like an infection may precipitate severe heart failure.

 

   
 

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